<oembed><type>rich</type><version>1.0</version><title>oscpacey wrote</title><author_name>oscpacey (npub1fa…gazhv)</author_name><author_url>https://nostr.now/npub1fam4gsxke9up7mqrp4sx50w5jesd9mm7ddvfljnhs0en7h924t7s2gazhv</author_url><provider_name>njump</provider_name><provider_url>https://nostr.now</provider_url><html>Should a government want to tax illicit economic activity more than the legitimate equivalent (because taxes are dis/incentive tools) or zero (because they do not wish to benefit from illicit activity or even have the conflict of interest it represents)?&#xA;&#xA;N.B. In the UK proceeds of crime are taxable under the same rules as legal income.</html></oembed>