If I remember the literature IQ is correlated to low time preference.
So the genetics preceding culture would assume a distribution of the relevant genetics correlates to race more so than the distribution within a race right?
And that there is enough environmental abundance for the expression of the genetic factors to be dominent.
Otherwise wouldn't the environmental factors be more dominant for cultural expression?
satoshi jr
npub1f8…7vzz5
2026-06-20 19:35:57 UTC
in reply to nevent1q…zvlm
Author Public Key
npub1f8j5ve48ux5h4707069tq5elr2ure5ml2k7af2ygutdgwam60rnsr7vzz5Published at
2026-06-20 19:35:57 UTCEvent JSON
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